As far as the reading goes. Is Gorgias suggesting that there is no sin that can not be justified through rhetoric?
And isn't he also admitting that he is guilty of being one who..." have and do persuade people of things do so my molding a false arguement?"
I think he is suggesting exactly that Dezri - that calling it a sin, at least, might be a matter of the rhetorical construction around it. And if you look at the history of the justice system, things that once were illegal (drinking, sodomy, interracial marriage, etc) are legal (of course a person still might call them sinful). But Gorgias really is pushing that boundary, I think, and I think too that he is playing with the idea of the false argument...
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